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The probability of 1,1,1 is exactly the same as 1,2,3 or 1,1,2 or 2,2,2, or 3,2,1.
So according to you this:
18
6
8
6
23
17
10
33
18
19
4
1
8
29
28
14
0
35
10
4
12
25
7
23
2
27
25
3
6
28
26
5
18
10
0
8
13
Has the same probability with that:
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
Your probability is perfectly reasonable!
Who could argue with that!
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The probability is not what makes roulette negative expectation - it's the unfair payouts for the odds.
What it matters is to win, a minor profit because of the unfair payouts is still better than losing.
What makes us lose is the variance and not less profit.
It's like you are claiming that a business could be terminated because of the taxes!
I suggest you do the following experiment, place two bets simultaneously, one on red and the other on black, find out how long it would take to lose your bankroll.
While one who is doubling up continuously will lose his bankroll in just a few spins.
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I'm not sure what you mean by "results are altering". And your reference to "flow"
Perhaps you should buy a dictionary.
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I assume means past spins like 1,1,1,1,1, but they have no influence on future spins, so no influence on the odds.
They don't have to, everything is a cycle and history repeats again and again like a deja vous.